INT249 System Administration Mid Term Exam Question (MTE) Paper

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INT249 System Administration Mid Term Exam Question (MTE) Paper.

INT249 System Administration Mid Term Exam Question (MTE) Paper.
INT249 System Administration Mid Term Exam Question (MTE) Paper.

Q1) You have a machine with two hard disk and you add an extra 100 GB hard disk for a specific Client-Server application to run on, because the application gets very slow returning query data. You want to have the fastest possible access for the Client-Server App to the HDD's. Which Raid should you apply?

A) RAID0

B) RAID1

C) RAID5

D) RAID2

Show Answer
Answer :  (A) RAID0

Q2) You are configuring a Windows 2000 Server computer as a Routing and Remote Access server for a Branch office. You discover that an incorrect driver was installed during the installation of the modem. You attempt to remove the modem by using Phone and Modem Options in Control Panel. After each attempt to remove the modem by using this method, the computer stops responding. You restart the computer again. You must install the correct driver for the modem as quickly as possible. What should you do?

A) Use the Add/Remove Hardware wizard to uninstall the modem. Restart the server

B) Shut down the server, remove the modem card, and restart the server. Shut down the server again, insert the modem card, and restart the server

C) Delete all references to modems in the registry

D) Run the Modem troubleshooter and remove the modem when prompted. Restart the server

Show Answer
Answer :  (A) Use the Add/Remove Hardware wizard to uninstall the modem. Restart the server

Q3) Which of the following is not an advantage of NAS?

A) A NAS has lower latency and higher reliability than a SAN

B) A NAS typically supports multiple RAID methods

C) A NAS supports high throughput

D) Implementing a NAS is inexpensive

Show Answer
Answer :  (A) A NAS has lower latency and higher reliability than a SAN

Q4) Which of the following is used as identifiers for host bus adapters?

A) MAC addresses

B) World Wide Names

C) IP addresses

D) LUNs

Show Answer
Answer :  (B) HBAs have World Wide Names (WWNs) that identify them, much like MAC addresses

Q5) Which of the following is not a part of hardening the system?

A) Disabling all unused services

B) Uninstalling unneeded applications

C) Ensuring all patches are installed

D) Ensuring sufficient processing power

Show Answer
Answer :  (D) Ensuring sufficient processing power (Although a good idea, ensuring the server has sufficient processing power is not a part of hardening the system as it does nothing to reduce the attack surface.)

Q6) Which statement is true with respect to hypervisors?

A) Type II is called native

B) Type II runs directly on the host’s hardware

C) A Type II hypervisor runs within a conventional operating system environment

D) VMware Workstation and VirtualBox exemplify Type I hypervisors

Show Answer
Answer :  (C) A Type II hypervisor runs within a conventional operating system environment

Q7) Which technique is used to allocate relative access to the CPU among VMs?

A) Reservations

B) Limits

C) Shares

D) Time slots

Show Answer
Answer :  (C) Shares

Q8) Which RAID type provides no fault tolerance?

A) RAID 0

B) RAID 1

C) RAID 3

D) RAID 5

Show Answer
Answer :  (A) RAID 0 ( RAID 0 is also known as disk striping. This is RAID that doesn't provide fault tolerance. Data is written across multiple drives, so one drive can be reading or writing while the next drive's read/write head is moving. This makes for faster data access. However, if any one of the drives fails, all content is lost. )

Q9) Which RAID type is also called mirroring?

A) RAID 0

B) RAID 1

C) RAID 3

D) RAID 5

Show Answer
Answer :  (B) RAID 1

Q10) Which server role automates the process of providing an IP configuration to devices in the network?

A) DNS

B) Routing and Remote Access

C) DHCP

D) NTP5

Show Answer
Answer :  (C) DHCP

Q11) Which of the following protocols is used when mail servers send email?

A) POP3

B) SMTP

C) SNMP

D) IMAP4

Show Answer
Answer :  (B) SMTP

Q12) Which of the following describes a drive that needs to be disconnected from the software in the server before begin changed out and then reconnected after the swap is done?

A) Hot pluggable

B) Warm pluggable

C) Warm pluggable

D) Hot swappable

Show Answer
Answer :  (D) Hot swappable

Q13) Which type of fault tolerance is recommended for servers running applications that do not have long-running in-memory state or frequently updated data?

A) Load balancing

B) Hot site

C) Clustering

D) Cold site

Show Answer
Answer :  (A) Load balancing

Q14) Which server role uses HTTP as its transfer mechanism?

A) Web

B) Application

C) Directory

D) Database

Show Answer
Answer :  (A) Web

Q15) Which of the following are the software stubs that allow devices to communicate with the operating system?

A) Drivers

B) Patches

C) Shims

D) Manifests

Show Answer
Answer :  (A) Drivers

Q16) Which authentication mechanism is an example of something you have?

A) Password

B) Username

C) Smart card

D) Retina scan

Show Answer
Answer :  (C) Smart card (While passwords and usernames are examples of something you know and a retina scanis an example of something you are, possessing a smart card is an example of something you have.)

Q17) Which authentication mechanism is an example of something you have?

A) Password

B) Username

C) Smart card

D) Retina scan

Show Answer
Answer :  (C) Smart card (While passwords and usernames are examples of something you know and a retina scanis an example of something you are, possessing a smart card is an example of something you have.)

Q18) Which of the following is not a drawback of using active RFID chips?

A) The tag signal can be read by any reader in range

B) The tag signal can only go a few feet

C) Multiple readers in an area can interfere with one another.

D) Multiple devices can interfere with one another when responding

Show Answer
Answer :  (B) The tag signal can only go a few feet. (The tags can be of two types: passive and active. Active tags have batteries whereas passive tags receive their energy from the reader when the reader interrogates the device. As you would expect, the passive tags are cheaper but have a range of only a few meters and the active tags are more expensive but can transmit up to a hundred meters.)

Q19) Which of the following offers the most flexibility in reacting to security events?

A) Cameras

B) Security guards

C) Motion sensors

D) Intrusion prevention systems

Show Answer
Answer :  (B) Security guards. (Security guards offer the most flexibility in reacting to whatever occurs. Guards can use discriminating judgment based on the situation, which automated systems cannot do. This makes guards an excellent addition to the layers of security you should be trying to create.)

Q20) Which of the following statements is false with respect to safes?

A) All safes are fireproof.

B) United Laboratories (UL) assigns ratings to safes that you can use to assess the suitability of the safe

C) Those that are fire resistant will protect a document from being destroyed

D) When considering a safe, you should focus on two items: the ease with which the safe can be compromised and the ability of the safe to withstand a fire

Show Answer
Answer :  (A) Security guards. (Security guards offer the most flexibility in reacting to whatever occurs. Guards can use discriminating judgment based on the situation, which automated systems cannot do. This makes guards an excellent addition to the layers of security you should be trying to create.)

Q21) Which of the following is true of the requirements to use SSL on a website?

A) The web server must have a certificate

B) The client must have a certificate

C) The web server and the client must have a certificate

D) Neither the web server nor the client must have a certificate

Show Answer
Answer :  (A) The web server must have a certificate. (SSL is related to a PKI in that a certificate is required on the server end and optionally can be used on the client end of an SSL communication.)

Q22) You have two devices that are connected to the same switch with IP addresses in the same network. After placing the two devices in separate VLANs, they can no longer ping one another. At what layer of the OSI model are the VLANs providing separation?

A) Network

B) Data link

C) Session

D) Transport

Show Answer
Answer :  (B) Data link. (Devices in different VLANs usually have IP addresses in different IP subnets. However, even if they have IP addresses in the same subnet, communication cannot occur without routing—if they reside in different VLANs—because VLANs separate devices at Layer 2, or the Data Link layer, of the OSI model.)

Q23) Which of the following is not true of an HIDS?

A) A high number of false positives can cause a lax attitude on the part of the security team

B) An HIDS cannot address authentication issues

C) Encrypted packets cannot be analyzed

D) An HIDS monitors all traffic that goes through it looking for signs of attack on any machine in the network

Show Answer
Answer :  (A) A high number of false positives can cause a lax attitude on the part of the security team. (When discussing network security, an endpoint is any point of entry into the network. A typical example of an endpoint is a laptop connected to the network with a remote access connection. Therefore, the process of providing endpoint security is the process of ensuring that every endpoint (including servers) has been secured in the same way in which you would secure the network gateway.)

Q24) Which of the following can read the individual commands of the protocols that are being served?

A) Stateful firewall

B) Packet filtering firewall

C) Application-level proxy

D) Host-based firewall

Show Answer
Answer :  (C) Application-level proxy. (The proxy function can occur at either the application level or the circuit level. Application-level proxy functions read the individual commands of the protocols that are being served. This type of server is advanced and must know the rules and capabilities of the protocol used.)

Q25) In which of the following devices are records kept using a table that tracks every communications channel?

A) Stateful firewall

B) Packet filtering firewall

C) Application-level proxy

D) Host-based firewall

Show Answer
Answer :  (A) Stateful firewall. (In stateful inspection (or stateful packet filtering), records are kept using a state table that tracks every communications channel.)

Q26) Which statement is false with respect to router ACLs?

A) The order of the rules is important

B) An implied deny all rule is located at the end of all ACLs

C) It is possible to log all traffic that meets any of the rules

D) All rules in the list are considered before the traffic is allowed

Show Answer
Answer :  (D) All rules in the list are considered before the traffic is allowed. (If traffic matches a rule, the action specified by the rule will be applied, and no other rules will be read.)

Q27) Which of the following is true of the requirements to use SSL on a website?

A) The web server must have a certificate

B) The client must have a certificate

C) The web server and the client must have a certificate

D) Neither the web server nor the client must have a certificate

Show Answer
Answer :  (A) The web server must have a certificate.

Q28) Which of the following cannot be accomplished using port security?

A) Set the minimum number of MAC addresses that can be seen on a port

B) Take a specific action when a port violation occurs

C) Define exactly which MAC addresses are allowed on the port

D) Set the maximum number of MAC addresses that can be seen on a port

Show Answer
Answer :  (A) Set the minimum number of MAC addresses that can be seen on a port. (It is not possible to specify a minimum number of MAC addresses allowed on a port.)

Q29) Which of the following would Joe use to encrypt a message that only Sally could decrypt?

A) Joe’s private key

B) Sally’s private key

C) Joe’s public key

D) Sally’s public key

Show Answer
Answer :  (D) Sally’s public key. (To provide encryption, the data is encrypted with the receiver’s public key, which results in cipher text that only his private key can decrypt.)

Q30) You have two devices that are connected to the same switch with IP addresses in the same network. After placing the two devices in separate VLANs, they can no longer ping one another. At what layer of the OSI model are the VLANs providing separation?

A) Network

B) Data link

C) Session

D) Transport

Show Answer
Answer :  (B) Data link. (Devices in different VLANs usually have IP addresses in different IP subnets. However, even if they have IP addresses in the same subnet, communication cannot occur without routing—if they reside in different VLANs—because VLANs separate devices at Layer 2, or the Data Link layer, of the OSI model.)

Q31) Which of the following has lost favor to SSH because it sends data—including passwords— in plain-text format?

A) POP3

B) Telnet

C) RDP

D) IMAP

Show Answer
Answer :  (B) Telnet. (Telnet is a protocol that functions at the Application layer of the OSI model, providing terminal-emulation capabilities. Telnet runs on port 23, but has lost favor to SSH because Telnet sends data—including passwords—in plain-text format.)

Q32) If a process fails, most operating system write the error information to a ______

A) New file

B) Another running process

C) Log file

D) None of the mentioned

Show Answer
Answer :  (C) log file. ( If a process fails, most operating systems write the error information to a log file. Log file is examined by the debugger, to find out what is the actual cause of that particular problem. Log file is useful for system programmers for correcting errors. )


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  1. Please Post End Term Question Of INT249 ... Please We Need it

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    1. Thank you for your patience! I appreciate your eagerness to access the end-term question for INT249. As promised, I am uploading the end-term question Soon.

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